Thursday, May 06, 2010
Bob want to know about his modification
Bob;
You asked the question "why has the bank yet to what? Offer a modification?
What Bank?
Bob, the lender is an originator and a seller of your loan. They hold a security interest in performance of the investment which includes the loan you received. That's stock, shares, certificates...got it? They hold no loan of yours.
Who is offering you a work or modification as you call it? A shareholder owning a 5% interest (that is really to cover their haircut in the deal) cannot do a modification. Or is the trust offering you a workout. The Master servicer and trustee do not even know who you are, get it?
So again, your modification offer is by whom? A TRS who is bankrupt? A defunct FSB? The FDIC who is on the see no evil, hear no evil speak no evil program for the acceptance and recovery challenged agencies?
Bob, modification program? Lender no can do Bob?
Your not encouraging them is you?
expert.witness@live.com
Monday, January 18, 2010
It's a ton of Maryland Bull Kop, Terps and Egg Foo Young
The Plaintiff bringing a foreclosure cannot defy the methods and measurments contolled under an accoutants general ledger journal entries. A defendant seeking to protect itself from any future calims made by parties unknown at this time and thus can acknowledge to the court its delinquent status and cause for default. Defendant can in fact show where the Federal Accounting Standards Board or “FASB” and the SEC staffs (EITF D-69) had determined in the late nineties that gain (or loss) on sale accounting is not elective. To the contrary, it is in a securitization that a transfer of teh asset to tehinvestoemnt trust MUST be accounted for as a sale. In other words, prepayment, loss or discount rate assumptions may not be tailored so as to force a zero gain.
In order to report zero up-front gain, the securitization must therefore be structured as a financing rather than a sale in virtually every case. This fact has not changed and recent changes in the accounting rules effective January 1st 2010 make this point even more substantive than ever. It has to do with a technical exception that does exist in the following deal structure (made of BAC Trust) whereby the Defendant is made to suffer under the burdensome claims brought by parties foreclosing. The parties cannot in fact cannot show standing as a holder in due course and therefore must be subjected to the homeowners claims for motioning the court to dismiss the recovery claims of the beneficiary.
How can the seller enforce a foreclosure under a securities instrument it sold.The Parties know fully well that the transfer of the loan to the trust is accomplished as a sale. This is a critical condition precedent where no answers are available to a benficiary seeking to enforce its rights under a mortgage or deed of trust in the event of default.
The original sterile content of the loan origination is lost and sold which is part and parcel to the asset being transferred forever with no controlling effect by the selling lender. Challenging MERS on issues even MERS cannot grasp has proven foolish. The facts are in order for a seller in a default to have the right to recover its security it needs standing; not by the live note but the evidence of a lawful assignment. Of course the instruments are forged and altered; what did you expect three years after the fact. And upon a seller lender "alerting" the trustee of the need to classify any asset down 30 days (please, yeah right) it then must explain how it intends to isolate your loan from over 1000 similar assets.
Note the courts comments - It's a ton of Maryland Bull Terp and Egg Foo Young. You must disassemble the securities registration that passed through the benefits of the entire pool and not the single asset in default. Therein the trustees call for the loan to be replaced and give the seller registrant six to nine months to make good on its reps and for repurchase and replacement. What part of the controlling interest is forever lost to the selling parties in a trust securtization. Under the current explanation there is a better alternative and that is a call to "receivership"
MSoliman
expert.witness@live.com
The lender lost before you set your first steps in court.
Msoliman
expert.witness@live.com
Several securitizers have recently announced that they will discontinue the use of "gain on sale" accounting. This has been in reaction to the unwanted volatility in earnings that goes hand in hand with the timing of securitization transactions
Vocal criticism (from equity analysts, in particular) that characterizes this accounting as "front-ending" income Rating agencies adding the securitization back to the balance sheet when considering capital adequacy. The following discussion covers some of the accounting issues that a company should consider before making a switch. The discussion is highly technical in places and is intended primarily for those who are intimately familiar with FAS 125 and certain other related accounting pronouncements.
The FASB and the SEC staffs (EITF D-69) have determined that gain (or loss) on sale accounting is not elective in a securitization that is accounted for as a sale. In other words, prepayment, loss or discount rate assumptions may not be tailored so as to force a zero gain. In order to report zero up-front gain, the securitization must therefore be structured as a financing rather than a sale in virtually every case. However, one technical exception exists in the following structure and fact pattern: Assume that the securitizer issues a limited guarantee as credit enhancement for some or all of the bonds.1 Paragraph 45 of FAS 125 indicates that, "if it is not practicable to estimate the fair value of a liability," then the unknown liability should be recorded as the greater of: the sum of the known assets less the fair value of the known liabilities-- that is, "plug' the amount that results in no gain or loss; (Paragraph 46 [Case No. 2] in FAS 125 illustrates that accounting.) or, the FAS 5 liability (which may be zero). As a practical matter, little guidance exists as to when "it is not practicable to estimate the fair value of liabilities," and a frequent securitizer would resist having to disclose an inability to evaluate the creditworthiness of the pool. Moreover, FAS 125 does not give guidance on the subsequent accounting, leaving any number of unresolved questions. For example, is income not to be recognized at all until it becomes practicable to estimate the fair value of the liability? And is income then to be recognized in one lump sum? If it is not practicable to estimate the fair value of an asset (such as a residual interest), FAS 125 calls for it to be recorded at no value. Adherence to this accounting will usually result in a loss on sale. In circumstances other than the above, then, debt-for-GAAP seems to be the only practical structure. Management usually has a strong objection to this financing treatment, due to the resulting ballooning of the balance sheet and the negative implications that this has on debt/equity ratios, return on assets, debt covenant compliance, etc. It should be borne in mind, however, that the balance sheet does not balloon any further if all cash securitization proceeds are used to repay on-balance-sheet warehouse funding or other debt. On the other hand, the typical pattern of a frequent securitizer today is to keep on-balance-sheet warehouse funding to a minimum as of quarterly balance sheet dates and sale accounting is the means used to shrink the balance sheet debt.
Before issuing FAS 125, the FASB considered, but rejected, the UK approach of a "linked presentation" in which the pledged assets remain on the balance sheet but the non-recourse collateralized debt is reported as a deduction from the pledged assets rather than as a liability and no gain or loss is recognized. Perhaps, it is time to reconsider that approach.
The most common way of achieving debt-for-GAAP is by means of a call option that is beyond a cleanup call. While no quantitative guidance exists on the maximum size of a cleanup call, 10% has always been the norm. FAS 125 provides for a not too user-friendly definition of a cleanup call as occurring "when the amount of outstanding assets falls to a level at which the cost of servicing those assets becomes burdensome." The FASB considered, but rejected the suggestion that a transaction with (for example) a 30% call should be accounted for as a 70% sale and a 30% financing.
Investors sometimes object to buying or paying full value for a bond (particularly a fixed-rate bond) subject to a significant call provision. This could perhaps be mitigated by setting the exercise price for the call at a premium, which should not affect the financing vs. sale determination under FAS 125. Other terms or conditions that would cause a securitization to be accounted for as debt-for-GAAP include:
A call of any size (even 1%) if the transferor is not also the servicer. (Oddly enough, this is what the FAS 125 Q&A Special Report says. This conclusion, however, is slated to be overturned in the planned FAS 125 Amendment). Use of a wholly-owned SPE as the issuer of secured debt, if the SPE has been granted certain powers to sell its assets or enter into derivative contracts that disqualify it from being a QSPE under EITF D-66. (Such grant would cause the SPE to be consolidated pursuant to EITF 96-20.) Nothing has to last forever.
If you later decide to sell at least one-half of the residual (i.e. the SPE equity), you can deconsolidate at that time and recognize gain or loss. Some unusual structural nuance that precludes counsel from issuing a "would" opinion, allowing only a true-sale "should" opinion (not applicable to banks). Transferring non-financial assets to the issuing SPE in addition to financial assets. Imposing restrictions on the investors' right to pledge or exchange their securities. Back to calls, then. The first decision that must be made is whether the call option is on the transferred assets or on the issued bonds. Either way, the SEC staff (EITF D-63) has said that the transfer has to be accounted for as a secured borrowing. But perhaps there is a difference in the balance sheet classification of the assets and the subsequent income effects. Paragraph 10 of FAS 125 says: "Upon completion of any transfer of financial assets," [author's interpretation: whether or not it satisfies the conditions to be accounted for as a sale], "the transferor shall: (a) continue to carry in its statement of financial position any retained interest in the transferred assets, including, if applicable, servicing assets, beneficial interests in assets transferred to a qualifying special-purpose entity in a securitization, and retained undivided interests and (b) allocate the previous carrying amount between the assets sold, if any, and the retained interests, if any, based on their relative fair values at the date of transfer." The term "transfer" is defined in paragraph 243 to include "putting it into a securitization trust" or "posting it as collateral." Paragraph 12 goes on to say that "If a transfer of financial assets in exchange for cash...does not meet the criteria for a sale...,the transferor and transferee shall account for the transfer as a secured borrowing with pledge of collateral."
My interpretation of those three paragraphs leads me to the following conclusions:
If (1) the call option enables the transferor to repurchase the transferred assets from the SPE when the balance of the transferred assets is reduced to some specified level, and (2) the SPE would in turn use the call option proceeds to pay off the bonds and remit the residual assets, then, the transferor would (i) allocate the carrying value of the transferred assets between loans and a servicing asset (if the servicing fee exceeds adequate compensation), based on relative fair value, and (ii) record the securitization proceeds as a secured borrowing or, perhaps, a series of secured borrowings, if tranched.
If, on the other hand, the call option enables the transferor or the issuer to repurchase the remaining classes of bonds when their balance is reduced to some specified level, the transferor would first allocate the carrying value of the transferred assets between each of the beneficial interests in the transferred assets (i.e., the bonds and a servicing asset) and would record the securitization proceeds as a secured borrowing or, perhaps, a series of secured borrowings, if tranched. If the transferor exercises the call and then owns all of the beneficial interests (the bonds and the residual), it could, but would not be obligated to, liquidate the trust and access the assets. Alternatively, it could resell the bonds. The above represents my current reading on this point. In candor, I am not sure that I am right.
The significance of the above decision lies in the accounting treatment afforded the pledged assets. If the pledged assets are treated as loans (their previous treatment), then they would likely be considered loans held for long-term investment and not loans held for sale. Thus there would be no FAS 65 LOCOM requirement, although valuation allowances for credit losses would be required and perhaps no requirement to allocate any basis to servicing rights. If the pledged assets are treated as securities, then FAS 115 applies, and a decision as to HTM, Trading, or AFS is required.
If the call option is at (for example) the 15% level, then the following question arises: If the intent is to call when it becomes exercisable and to liquidate the trust and reclaim the transferred assets, is that a "desecuritization" at that point with no gain or loss recognition or would it be considered a "taint" of the HTM classification? My own view is that it would not be considered a "taint." (EITF D-51 permits desecuritization without "tainting.")
In fact, paragraph 11b. Of FAS 115 says that the holder of a held-to-maturity mortgage-backed security could sell that security without a taint when at least 85% of its principal balance at acquisition has been received.However, even if it is permissible to classify the pledged securities as HTM, an IO class would likely still be disqualified. Obviously, the trading classification, although technically allowable, would not make sense If classified as AFS, should the asset side be marked to market (affecting equity and comprehensive income) without marking the corresponding liability side? Would the risk-based capital requirement for banks be different if the assets were classified as securities rather than loans?
Can the "low-level recourse" rule for banks be made to apply if the securitization is accounted for as a secured borrowing?2 Should there be some other balance sheet caption to distinguish these pledged assets from the investment portfolio - for instance, "Securitized assets subject to repurchase option" (see paragraph 15 of FAS 125)? When allocating the previous carrying value to the beneficial interests based on their relative fair values, is the fair value of a bond class determined with or without the embedded option? My view is that the fair value for this purpose should be calculated to maturity rather than to the call date. I base this on the fact that the transferor can call and then hold or resell the bond rather than retire it. If the fair values are determined with the embedded option, should there also be an asset set up for the call option? FAS 133 doesn't think so - a view with which I concur. I have seen a securitization transaction in which the transferor retained a call option on certain classes, but not on other classes, and accounted for the transaction as part financing, part sale. Even accounting for a securitization as a financing requires the use of many subjective judgments and estimates and could still cause volatility in earnings due to the usual factors of prepayments and credit losses. After all, the company still effectively owns a residual even though you can't find it on the balance sheet. It is the excess of the securitized assets over the associated debt. Different accounting treatments will apply from origination through securitization and continue through maturity. Some of these differences are listed below: a) In the financing scenario, the decision on what origination costs should be appropriately deferred under FAS 91 rather than expensed takes on added significance in the first year income statement since they will remain deferred (amortized over the life of the loan) rather than effectively reversed within a short time frame in a gain-on-sale calculation. The pace of amortization will be affected by prepayments and prepayment estimates, as well as credit losses and estimates. On the other hand, the amount of origination fees such as points and premiums paid to purchase loans take on less first year income statement significance since they will be spread over a long period of time rather than effectively recognized almost immediately in a gain on sale calculation.
b) When loans are originated or acquired with the intent to securitize as a financing, then the loans will be classified as held for long-term investment and not subject to a FAS 65 LOCOM adjustment (e.g., from rising interest rates) during the accumulation period. Although the economic risks still exist, a company might want to reconsider its hedging policies during that period because the "income statement risk" of a LOCOM adjustment or a lower gain on sale (e.g., if spreads widen) are mitigated.
c) If loans are securitized, and the securitizer retains all of the resulting securities and classifies them as debt securities held to maturity under FAS 115, the securitizer does not have to recognize a separate servicing asset. That is, the value can be embodied in the carrying value of the debt securities. If a servicing asset is created, it will be subject to LOCOM accounting.
d) Underwriting fees and deal costs of issuance will be deferred and amortized over the life of the bonds, and the pace of amortization will be affected by prepayments.
e) Provisions for credit losses will be made periodically under FAS 5, rather than initially estimating all credit losses over the entire life of the receivables transferred and providing for them in the gain on sale calculation.
f) Original issue discount on bond classes will be amortized and the pace of amortization will be affected by prepayments. Also, in a deal with maturity tranching, especially in a steep yield curve, significant amounts of "phantom" GAAP income could result!
Assume, for instance, that four sequential pay tranches are issued at yields of 7%, 8%, 9%, and 10%, respectively backed by a pool of newly-originated 10% loans.
An overall yield to maturity on the assets is calculated and used for FAS 91 purposes, but interest expense on the bonds is calculated based on the yield to maturity of each outstanding bond. The result is that the net interest margin reported in the earlier years will exceed the net interest margin reported in the later years.
Observe that, in this example, there would be no income reported during the years that only the last class is outstanding. A more conservative answer, but perhaps not GAAP, would result if the four bond classes were treated as a single large bond class, with a single weighted average yield to maturity used to record the interest cost. In REMIC deals, which by definition are a sale for tax purposes, taxes will still have to be paid on any up-front tax gain and a deferred tax asset will be created for taxable income recognized before book income.
When a company is willing to account for its transactions as financings, it can take advantage of certain features of the FASIT legislation that would have been in conflict with sale accounting treatment. In particular, the liberal substitution and permitted withdrawals of assets when overcollateralized and the ability to liquidate a class of securities and to hedge certain risks can be used to give an issuer significantly more flexibility than REMIC structures. This does nothing, however, to mitigate the showstopper in FASITs - the upfront "toll charge" tax on an artificial gain. In comparing pro forma projected results of weaning off of gain-on-sale accounting, don't forget the income from the accretion of yield (at the discount rate) on the residual interests retained.
The FASB has proposed extensive new disclosures relating to securitizations, including the number and volume of transactions, cash inflows (outflows) with the securitization trusts, disclosure of assumptions, and a stress test or sensitivity analysis for the value of the retained interests. These disclosures will not apply to securitizations accounted for as secured borrowings. Some companies provide supplemental information showing key financial statement components on a pro forma basis as if their off-balance sheet securitizations were on-balance sheet. The FASB considered, but rejected, this type of presentation being a required part of the new disclosures.
Experts Corner: Another FDIC Bank Failure
American Marine Bank
News of another FDIC member bank falling under the FDIC control was published late this week. The “
Our question is to whom? Who is the holder in due course?The purpose of this analysis and discussion of the FDIC are subject to the various parties’ who have interest in your loan. It’s about their representations, conduct and decisions made while enforcing a foreclosure. Making a bad decision or employing conduct viewed to be deceptive will cause any transaction or enforcement of a right to a security to be rendered voidable.
Furthermore the asset may suffer from malfeasance and willful error and omissions causing the loan to be valued far below its market value due to serious impairment. Successfully demonstrating in court the reasons why your loan has become so seriously impaired that the real security, a deed of trust or mortgage, will fall into a judicial abyss and subject the true holder in due course to lose its rights to in a recovery of the asset in a foreclosure. In other words the right to accelerate and foreclose becomes lost to the transaction
Your loan was likely sold after it originated. A sale of the asset versus a government backed insurance guaranty is the single most controversial component of the subprime lenders dilemma.
A bonifide sale and transfer must be evidenced which differentiates the private label loans from the GSE or Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac class of loans delivered to Wall Street.
In a true sale the lender who sold it is lost to the privileges and rights to the asset forever. So I guess the question is not so much about a foreclosure due to a breach and delinquent obligation. This discussion is for us to understand to “whom” you owe the money and what right do they have to enforce the obligation and right to foreclose? Lawful Transfers
A “transfer” is the “streets” vernacular for booking a sale of a loan or pool of loans. The transfer of an asset by the lender to a less than arms investor is routinely conducted solely for accounting purposes. None the less it’s a sale that is forever entered in to the books.
The purpose of this analysis and discussion of the FDIC are subject to the various parties’ representations and decision making that may cause the asset to become so impaired that the real security, a deed of trust or mortgage becomes lost to the transaction. My last sale as a trader was a transfer of a bulk pool of “toxic waste” was back in 2001. The loans acquired and sold under my direction were never really that bad as we had one of the lowest delinquency rates in the region for sub prime assets sold and serviced. What I do know or at least remember from my days of bulk whole loan trading was from selling to the same major market leaders who are in trouble today.
Let’s back up for a moment to consider how accountants arrive at a specific value. A valuation is necessary for a foreclosure to take place just as it is for the original loan to be sold. A sale involves a contract and the essential elements f the law amongst the two parties. The first is consideration (money) and the second is the intent of the parties for lawful exchange and or transfer.
Consideration is required for transferring any good or service amongst one party to another, including a sale of a bulk pool of mortgage loan receivables.
If a mortgage is valued at par then you typically measure its worth at the combined cost to date or basis in the asset. A true and more accurate valuation is based upon the market and what one will pay assuming demand. It’s the true inherent value of a gallon of milk that will force someone to go elsewhere or not to drink milk at all. The same rationale holds true for an asset such as a closed mortgage receivable subject to its ability to attract a fair price in an open market. A mark to market value is entered by an accountant prior to sale if the owner is seeking to value the worth of the assets it holds.
Estimating value based on the future worth of an asset is something that continues to attract criticism whereby a historical valuation is entered based on a discounted future value. A presumption of value is calculated in a variety of ways sometimes using an internal rate of return offset by depreciation. In the mortgage industry I call this type of valuation complete lunacy. And this is where things get interesting with taking a look back at the cause of the mess we are now in.
Generally Accepted Accounting Principals aka “GAAP” allows us a standard to apply a historical value on a loan which is necessary for estimating consistency as with the life of a loan. The terms of the note say 30 years but we know that homeowners rarely keep a loan to term. Valuations use variables such as prepayment velocity or life based on a traditional or historic early payoff.
The CPR is the measurement of prepayment speed determine from reversion (sale of a home) refinance or the opposite end of the spectrum which is delinquency and default. Mortgages originated over the last decade were attributed an estimated holding time or CPR of say 60 months. Other things that influence price and for understanding the lenders desire to become fixated with the sub prime mortgage sector are subject to ethical scrutiny. I am referring to extreme maximum leverage used to buy loans and the introduction of something called accounting practices such as derecongnition. The latter is suspect, according to many accountants, as it offer no real value to a transfer and subject to entering a “gain on sale.”
The "streets" ability to substantiate its reporting methods. The Expert Witness must have among other things a legal understanding and verifiable accounting practices background. So figure an offshore investor will take a coupon of 1% at twice the current alternative which was a US Treasury. So I guess a WAC of 8% would yield on $100,000 certificate up to $800,000 in capital investment. Or is that $100,000 yielding 8 separate $100,000 certificates?
What ever it is its six of one and half a dozen of the other. It makes me want to run to the Hampton's and buy the biggest home they can offer. It makes me want to find the worse of the worse credit and put them into a loan.....any loan.
The problem with this madness conducted under the great GWB (and side kick “Don't call me Cheney call me "Dick”) administration is the regulatory absence for the bubble Wall Street elite would eventually pop.
The money raised was at a huge multiple and was causing CDO product to suffer from heavy demand internationally in a market that had long exceeded capacity. ( . . . .It makes me cringe and recall the old Keystone Kops silent flicks; remember the morons running around that said nothing and were always trying to help while and causing even more chaos …..Anyway!
I cannot pinpoint of fully grasp the role of the FDIC here but fear we may have an accounting play that shows the bank lines were actually used as “paid in capital” . It’s called derecongnition under GAAP and FASB accounting pronouncements for isolating the source and use of funds.
Will this help your arguments to save your home? YOU BET IT WILL! The big question is where the logic here is and why would the bank regulators let this happen? These Pretender Lenders were not pretenders at all. I call them “Tender Lenders” who tendered a note like currency instead of parking it in a vault like the asset it is. Therefore when tendered the check is electronically debited (hmm) and treated like a cancelled check.
The lost note is not a coat lost by a child at school. It’s lost to the payee who failed to deliver to the payor that check evidencing a debit stamped paid in full.
Hey, Barney just a minute . . . Hey, Wilma I’m home!!!!! So lets say these guys raised volumes of cash at huge multiples and did so with FDIC capitalization or tax payer insured capital contributions into a “NewCo” or De novo or S*P* E*.
If so, I feel the SPE is more like an STD and its all absolute "Bull Crepes". Where did these guys put all the capitalization anyway from money and stock…Huh? Especially with all these stringent FDIC risk weight capital set aside requirements. It’s a regulatory capital priority and basic fiscal mandate enforced by the OTS.
I got to know, where did they "Deposit" the money and stock ...do you know? I am referring to the "Deposits by the Wall Street “Depositors” you see. Deposited, Depositor, Depository, Restroom, tell me Wendy! Where’s the beef! Howard, who goofed I must known, who goofed!
Hey! ....wait a minute!!!....D*E*P*O*S*I*T*O*R*S! Yikes…OMG! How much more can we take!
So back to the failure of another institution, one of Americas and Pacific Northwest’s finest! American Marine Bank. So who do we bring an action against now? FDIC say’s “for all questions regarding “new” loans and the lending policies of the new successor call Columbia State Bank, and to please contact your branch office.
They continue that shares of American Marine Bank were owned by its holding company, AMB Financial Services Corporation, Bainbridge Island, WA. The holding company was not included in the closing of the bank or the resulting receivership. So if you are a shareholder of AMB Financial Services Corporation, please do not contact or file a claim with the Receiver. You may contact AMB Financial Services Corporation directly for information. How convenient is that….a BK waiting to happen.
The FDIC claims it does offer a reference guide to deposit brokers acting as agents for their investor clientele. This web site outlines the FDIC's policies and procedures that must be followed by deposit brokers when filing for pass-through insurance coverage on custodial accounts deposited in a failed FDIC Insured Institution. Wait a minute here now just slow down. FDIC makes no mention of a lender consumer grievance, and tells us to call the broke parent of the bank. Now are these loans in question considered FDIC troubled assets? Okay, we cannot help you with a predator loan but we will be back to foreclose on you?
My heart is pounding right now and I cannot take anymore folks…..really! But on a more serious note, consider the following. A bad notary signature, broken promise by a “Tender Lender” or forged MERS document is not the argument to bet the house on (no pun intended) It won’t get you to the promised land so can the need for an audit. It won’t get you to the Promised Land, so here is my advice!
SAVE YOUR MONEY! . . . UNLESS YOU WANT TO BORE THE HELL OUT OF A JUDGE AND GET THROWN OUT OF COURT.
It’s time to step up or step down!
By "Toxic Waste Guru" (LOL)
M.Soliman
expert.witness@live.com
REQUIREMENTS OF THE APPLICABLE CUSTODIAN .
(ii) If Custodian determines that the documents in the MortgageFilefor a Delivered Mortgage Loan conform in all respects with Section3(b)(i),and unless otherwise notified by Buyer in accordance with Section3(b)(i),Custodian shall include such Mortgage Loan in the CustodialMortgage LoanSchedule issued to Buyer.
If the documents required in any Mortgagedonot conform (except as otherwise notified in Section 3(b)(i)),Custodianshall not include such Mortgage Loan in any Custodial Mortgage LoanSchedule. Custodian shall notify Sellers and Buyer of any documentsthatare missing, incomplete on their face or patently inconsistent andof anyMortgage Loans that do not satisfy the criteria listed above.Sellers shallpromptly deposit such missing documents with Custodian or completeorcorrect the documents as required by Section 3(a) or remove therelatedMortgage File from the Request for Certification.
On or prior tothePurchase Date and as a condition to purchase, except with respectto aWet-Ink Mortgage Loan, Custodian shall deliver to the Buyer anelectronicCustodial Mortgage Loan Schedule to the effect that the Custodianhasreceived the Mortgage File for each Purchased Mortgage Loan on theMortgageLoan Schedule and as to each Mortgage File, specifying any documendelivered and any original document that has not been received, andverifying the items listed in this Section 3(b).(c) As required by Section 3(a), Custodian shall deliver to Buyer,nolater than 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time on the related Purchase Date(provided, thatthe
Custodian has timely received the items required in Section2(b) herein),electronically or via facsimile, followed, if requested in writingby Buyer, byovernight courier, a Custodial Mortgage Loan Schedule havingappended thereto aschedule of all Mortgage Loans with respect to which Custodian hascompleted theprocedures set forth in Sections 3(a) and 3(b)(i) hereof andcertify that it isholding each related Mortgage File for the benefit of Buyer inaccordance withthe terms hereof.
Pleading (Not for Use) Lenders egregious, ongoing and far reaching fraudulent schemes
Fight Foreclosures Legally - Anti Predatory Lending Initiative
Lenders who Lied about Loan Modification Programs
Jun 23, 2010 ... The attorney will be able to cut through the lender lies and review the true financial status of the borrower in order to paint
THIS IS NOT TO BE CONSTRUED AS LEGAL ADVICE!!
If you don’t file a timely response, the plaintiff can petition the court for a “default judgment” and possibly win the lawsuit simply because you failed to respond.
First call an Attorney Immediately. An attorney experienced in defending against the type of lawsuit you’ve been served with will undoubtedly be the best tool in your defense toolbox.
Lawyers are knowledgeable about the procedures involved in lawsuits and skilled at making persuasive arguments to a judge or a jury in your defense. An attorney can also help you try to settle the case out of court as an alternative.This blog only describes situational circumstances and no witness can offer legal advice. M.Soliman is an "expert witness" and not an attorney nor affiliated under a licensed prationer.
This web site does NOT advocate nor believe that modifications exist and will not be involvved in any modificiation or other short sale settlement offers.
Consult an attorney first for your specific problem. NO attorney-client relationship exists.
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